I can't make out the point here (no pun). Of course a line can pass through any two points. It could pass through three if those points were collinear but the statement says they're not. So what is the new fact?
Isn't this a tautology?
The problem definition states that the set of points is in Euclidean space, which from Euclid's Axioms means we can draw a line between any two points. The set of points is defined to be not collinear, thus we cannot draw a line passing through more than two of them. This is just simple logic.
You may think "I'm sure I can arrange these points in a way where EVERY line will cross three or more points" but you will fail if you try unless ALL points are colinear.
For all arbitrarily sized (but finite) sets of not collinear points, there's always a line that passes through exactly two points in the set.
... of course there's no single line that all the points lie on. They've been defined to be non-collinear.
Edit: can't reply because of HN's stupid rate-limit mechanism, but to this:
>So the theorem proves that no matter which way you arrange any finite set of points, except for all on the same line, then you can always find a line with exactly two points.
Of course you can. It's absolutely implied by the problem definition. My 9 year old could do this, given a ruler and a pencil, with 100% success rate. I absolutely do not believe this is a novel "theorem"
Let X be a set of points not all of which are collinear. Then, there are two points a, b in X such that the line l passing through X only passes through a and b.
Given N points, N > 2, can you arrange them in a Euclidean plane so that (1) they are not all on the same line, and (2) every line that goes through two of the points must also go through at least one more of the points?
The theorem says that you cannot do this.
So the theorem proves that no matter which way you arrange any finite set of points, except for all on the same line, then you can always find a line with exactly two points.
I don't see how this rephrasing changes anything. Of course there are two points a and b because again, the definition of the problem leads naturally, obviously, and definitionally to this result.
There's nothing novel here. I feel like I'm taking fucking crazy pills.
Consider a 3x3 grid. It satisfies this argument.
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Image: Wikimedia Commons
Every finite set of points in the Euclidean plane that is not collinear has a line that passes through exactly two of the points.
This proof is by Michigan State University mathematician Leroy Milton Kelly. Consider a set S of points that aren’t all collinear, and define a connecting line to be a line that contains at least two of these points. There must be some point P and connecting line ℓ that are closer together than any other point-line pair in the set. Kelly now proves that ℓ contains only two of the points in S.
Assume that this isn’t true; that is, assume that ℓ contains more than two points in S. Then it passes through at least three points in the set. At least two of these must fall on the same side of P′, the perpendicular projection of P on ℓ. Call these two points B and C, with B being closest to P′. If we draw a connecting line 𝓂 that passes through P and C, and draw the perpendicular from B to B′ on 𝓂, then BB′ will be shorter than PP′ (because PP′C and BB′C are similar triangles).
This is a contradiction — we’d defined P and ℓ as the point-line pair that are closer together than any other pair in the set. So our assumption that ℓ contains more than two points can’t be true.